The world would be a different place, more rational and convivial, if all politicians, journalists, and editors had some clear notions of supply and demand as well as of the history of economic thought—if, for example, they had read David Hume, Adam Smith, Jean-Baptiste Say, James Mill, and John Stuart Mill. As an illustration, consider a sentence in yesterday’s Wall Street Journal (“Trump’s Trade War Will Be Left for Biden to Win,” January 3, 2021—my emphasis):
[Mr. Biden] has already said he wouldn’t immediately lift the tariffs, which should prove more punishing to China than the U.S., as its economy generally depends more on exports.
It is not clear whether the explanation I have emphasized is the journalist’s paraphrase of Mr. Biden’s thinking or the journalist’s own opinion. It could well be both. My guess is that, as the sentence is written, it expresses the journalist’s belief. On the other hand, it is quite obvious that Mr. Biden is as ignorant of trade as Mr. Trump, although the ignorance of the former is not as militant as the ignorance of the latter. But whoever’s thinking it represents, the clause ignores two centuries and a half of economic understanding, to which only some extreme left and some extreme right have been completely immune.
Increasing the tariffs “against China” would increase them against American consumers, who, as was again demonstrated by President Trump’s trade war, end up paying the tariffs in increased prices, which reimburse the tariffs paid by American importers. The only sense in which Chinese exporters pay is that higher tariffs and prices translate into a lower quantity demanded for their wares, assuming they cannot sell them elsewhere in world markets. Thus, increasing the tariffs on Chinese goods would prove more punishing to American consumers. (See my Econlog posts “The Poverty of Protectionism and the Impact of Tariffs,” June 17, 2019; and “Anecdotes and Data in the Trade War,” July 9, 2019.)
The last clause of the quote above, “as [China’s] economy depends more on exports,” is also (at the very least) misleading. As such, exports do not increase domestic prosperity: they divert to the benefit of foreign consumers (Chinese consumers, in this case) domestic (American) resources that would otherwise be used to produce goods or services for domestic (American) consumers. American exports benefit Americans only in the sense that they allow them to produce more of what they have a comparative advantage in and thus import more goods which are produced relatively more cheaply in China or in other countries. The only benefit of exports for the domestic economy is that they allow more imports. Otherwise, exports would be just a gift from “the Americans” to “the Chinese.” (For an elaboration of this point, see my “Logic, Economics, and Protectionist Nationalists,” Regulation 43:3 (Fall 2020), pp. 9-11.)
READER COMMENTS
Warren Platts
Jan 4 2021 at 9:42am
If the goal is to end the trade deficit, then end the trade deficit.
If the goal is to punish China, then end the trade deficit.
International trade & financial flows are sort of like a balloon. If you squeeze in one place, it just gets bigger somewhere else because the accounts must balance. Tariffing China will not end China’s surplus: it will just flow elsewhere, likely Europe, and then USA’s trade deficit with those other countries will simply increase, and thus neither USA’s trade deficit is ended, nor is China punished in the process.
Jon Murphy
Jan 4 2021 at 9:57am
This is an interesting 180° for you. For years, you’ve been championing tariffs as a means of reducing the trade deficit, punishing China, and increasing US welfare. Now you’re saying they don’t do that.
What caused you to change your mind? You’ve been gung-ho about optimal tariffs for years.
Warren Platts
Jan 5 2021 at 12:47am
Reread my comment. Tariffs will aid in reducing or eliminating a trade deficit, but not if the tariffs are aimed at a single country.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 9:35am
Right. Which is a 180 from what you’ve claimed in the past.
Warren Platts
Jan 5 2021 at 11:37am
No.
Niko Davor
Jan 4 2021 at 3:03pm
This author is wrong. Both producer and consumer pay the cost of a tariff, not strictly the consumer as this author claims.
This article explains the impact of taxes or tariffs on buyers/sellers with simple supply and demand curves: https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/knowledge/economics/excise-tax/
This is basic Econ 101. My suspicion is that the author knows better and is just getting this wrong to land a political point.
Jon Murphy
Jan 4 2021 at 3:20pm
Be careful, Niko Davor. Tax incidence does determine who shoulders various portions of the tax, but there are a number of assumptions involved. Remember that it is ultimately a ceteris paribus analysis and depends on a number of assumptions. As we have seen, the costs of tariffs were ultimately paid by American consumers in different ways.
In partial equilibrium, your point is correct. In general equilibrium, it may not be correct.
Mark Brady
Jan 4 2021 at 4:48pm
Pierre should have made that clear.
Niko Davor
Jan 4 2021 at 9:14pm
This is somewhat of a vague comment. In simple Econ 101 theory, the cost of a tariff is split between producers and consumers, and the specifics of that split depends on the supply/demand curve. That’s what that linked article shows with nice graphics and full explanations.
Sales tax and income tax 100% impact Americans and don’t have a direct impact on China at all. Libertarians prefer lower taxes, or even zero taxes, but realistically, government needs lots of tax money to operate.
For a more favorable economist judgement of Trump’s tariffs, read this:
https://www.nationalreview.com/2020/10/i-am-a-tariff-man-comparing-presidents-reagan-and-trump/
You linked a paper with evidence concluding that Trump’s tariffs impacted mostly US citizens like a sales tax does, and not so much China. I’m often skeptical when I see such a politically loaded conclusion. It’s possible that it’s true, but it’s also quite possible to bend stats to provide a politically desirable conclusion.
Jon Murphy
Jan 4 2021 at 11:33pm
Yes. Given you’re citing Econ 101, I figured you were aware of the assumptions behind the model. If that is not the case, I will spell them out.
Yes. Good article from Casey Mulligan confirming what Pierre and I are saying. Mulligan is an excellent economist. I highly recommend his fairly new book with several coauthors Chicago Price Theory.
I can cite many more studies. That is just one of the more recent, and it is forthcoming in the AER (the top econ journal). The researchers who authored it are not fly-by-night researchers.
Niko Davor
Jan 5 2021 at 10:48pm
No. Mulligan and Pierre are drawing very different conclusions.
Mulligan paints a favorable but not perfect picture of the Trump Administration on free trade, specifically in reference to the Reagan Administration. Pierre doesn’t mention the Reagan Administration, but makes very negative claims about the Trump Administration. Biden is ignorant but maybe not as militantly ignorant as Trump.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 11:23pm
Ok. I think you’ve missed the point of Pierre’s post. It has nothing to do with Regan. He’s discussing the WSJ story and the assumptions behind the very-similar policies of Trump and Biden.
Warren Platts
Jan 5 2021 at 12:57am
To be honest, this entire discussion of “Who pays the tariff?” is merely academic, in the worst sense of the word. Indeed, if your goal is to reduce imports in order to protect workers, then you want your home consumers to pay the price. The more pain induced, the fewer the imports they will buy.
Conversely, if your goal is to raise tax revenue, then you want the foreign producer to pay all or most of the tariff. This will not reduce imports, however; the protectionist effect will be nil.
If, like Commissioner of Customs and Salt Duties Adam Smith, your goal is to do both, then ideally foreign producers and home consumers will split the cost.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 9:37am
Again, I am wondering where this massive 180 comes from. For the past 5 years, you’ve been a cheerleader for optimal tariffs, which is precisely “who pays the tariff.” It’s only since the evidence has been coming out that the tariff is borne entirely by Americans that you’ve changed your tune.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 11:13am
As a point of fact, Adam Smith’s goal was not to do both. He fully rejects that trade deficit should be controlled as we see in his book The Wealth of Nations, his Lectures on Jurisprudence, and several letters he wrote in his official capacity advising on policy. He calls trying to control a trade deficit “absurd” multiple times (see III.I.I and IV.III.c.II in Wealth of Nations for examples).
Likewise, Smith does argue that a sovereign needs to raise tax revenue, but he has several maxims of taxation and he is not convinced that tariffs fit those too well; there are other forms of taxation that are better (see V.II. in WN)
Warren Platts
Jan 6 2021 at 3:39pm
Reread my comment: the question of whether trade deficits are good or bad (or self-correcting, as Smith argued) is separate from whether workers should protected from import competition. (Specifically, the chronic trade deficit in 19th century was good for workers; in 21st century, the chronic trade is bad for workers.) Here is the quotation I’m sure you are familiar with.
Also, if Smith was against tariffs for revenue-raising purposes, he would be quite the hypocrite for taking the equivalent job of Commissioner of Customs and Border Protection. Indeed, he bragged in his correspondence about how he was raising like 7X more revenue than his predecessor. Smith was not a hypocrite.
Jon Murphy
Jan 7 2021 at 12:25pm
Again, Smith did not argue that. He stated multiple times in multiple documents that the whole conception of the balance of trade is “absurd.” Your quote has nothing to do with your argument.
As you like to say, ad hominem is not an argument. Calling Smith a hypocrite (especially when there is nothing hypocritical in his argument and commission) is not an argument against his discussion of taxation.
Pierre Lemieux
Jan 5 2021 at 10:55am
@Niko Davor: Thanks for your few comments but they are in error. If the supply curve is perfectly elastic, the incidence of a tax (or a tariff) is all on the demanders. In international trade, the supply curve facing the consumers of a given country is (typically) perfectly elastic. This is very standard international trade theory: for example, see Paul Krugman et al., International Trade: Theory and Policy, 10th edition (2015), p. 215 (or p. 222 for an application to sugar); or Tyler Cowen and Alex Tabarrok, Modern Principles: Macroeconomics (2009), p. 389. There, or in any other textbook of international trade theory, you will be able to visualize the source of your error.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 11:01am
It’s also worth pointing out that, even if a country faces a demand curve that is not perfectly elastic, and thus some tariff could be applied where it is possible to get welfare gains, public choice and temporal issues indicate that the country still acts as if it faces a perfectly elastic demand curve (Krugman et al make this point, but I don’t have my copy of the book in front of me so I cannot cite pages)
Warren Platts
Jan 5 2021 at 1:53pm
@ Pierre: It just depends. If the exporter can exercise a bit of monopoly pricing power, even a Barbados-sized country can extract terms of trade gains with tariffs.
Meanwhile, U.S. soybean futures declined from $1000 to $800 in response to China’s 25% soybean tariff, seemingly implying that U.S. producers ate 100% of that tariff. I guess that’s what happens when a large country is reduced to being a raw materials supplier to the world’s mercantilists.
Anyways, as I was saying, whether the answer to the question of who eats the tariff is a good or a bad thing depends on the aim of the tariff. This raft of fancy papers purporting to demonstrate 100% (or more!) passthrough of Trump’s tariffs to U.S. consumers are merely confirming that Trump’s tariffs had their desired effect through the intended channel! If the goal was to reduce imports from China, Trump’s tariffs have succeeded wildly:
Of course, as I said above, the overall trade deficit remains mostly unaffected because of the balloon effect.
If one’s goal is to raise tax revenue (as seems to be the case with the E.U.), then yes, you want the foreigners to eat the tariff. Indeed, it is a little-appreciated fact that VATs are more effective at squeezing terms of trade gains from foreign producers than ordinary tariffs!
@Jon: If the home country’s demand curve is perfectly elastic, then the entire cost of the tariff is necessarily borne by the foreign producers. Are you sure this is the point you are trying to make?
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 2:13pm
Not quite for the reasons discussed above.
Craig
Jan 5 2021 at 3:02pm
I’m sorry Professor, you lost me on this one, can you expound a bit further perhaps.
” In international trade, the demand curve facing the consumers of a given country is (typically) perfectly elastic.”
When I read that, this is how I read it. When I hear ‘perfectly elastic’ I interpret the demand curve as being a horizontal line which means that I, a consumer, will demand a certain quantity of a commodity no matter the price. If the price is 0, the market demands x, if the price is 10 the market demands x, if the price is 20, the market demands x…..
Pierre Lemieux
Jan 5 2021 at 10:59pm
@Craig: Thanks for finding my mistake. I meant of course “In international trade, the supply curve facing the consumers of a given country is (typically) perfectly elastic.” I will make the correction, but future historians will remember your keen eye!
Craig
Jan 5 2021 at 3:18pm
“If the supply curve is perfectly elastic, the incidence of a tax (or a tariff) is all on the demanders.”
This statement makes sense in certain situations of course. I mean, sure, if I am a Chinese supplier making widgets for $10 and the US imposes a 25% tariff such that they now cost $12.50, I am not going to sell them for $10 less 25% IF I can sell the widget to Mexico for $10. I’ll take the $10 from Mexico and if the American wants it, he’ll just have to pay the $12.50 as you suggest.
But in real life we DO see MASSIVE AMOUNTS of geographic price discrimination.
Where I think the economists go wrong a little bit is that from a business point of view the real constraint, in many circumstances, on production isn’t the actual number you can produce, its the number you can sell.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 3:41pm
In economics, the number you produce and the number you sell are one and the same. We’re concerned about actual transactions, not theoretical ones.
Craig
Jan 5 2021 at 4:28pm
That’s irrelevant to my point.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 5:42pm
It’s the entirety of your point. If your point had nothing to do with production and sales, why bring it up at all?
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 3:42pm
Right, but note that does not undermine the point at all because costs vary by region.
Craig
Jan 5 2021 at 4:29pm
We’re talking the FOB price from the factory.
Craig
Jan 5 2021 at 4:42pm
Now to get back to the point which is this: “If supply is perfectly elastic, it means that any change in price will result in an infinite amount of change in quantity.”
But we know that supply is NOT perfectly elastic because of geographic price discrimination over and above what differences in costs along the supply chain itself impose.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 5:43pm
Yes. And? Different regions face different costs (not to mention differences in demand). So there are differences in prices.
Craig
Jan 5 2021 at 6:48pm
Bottom line that is simply not how volume sellers are going to react.
Pierre Lemieux
Jan 5 2021 at 11:18pm
@Craig: A supply curve with a slope of zero (that is, with an elasticity tending to infinity) comes from a very large number of producers, who each produces at price=(increasing)cost. Remember the theory of production in your economics class. An infinitely elastic supply curve is, if I may point that out, what you were yourself assuming when, in another conversation, you argued that domestically and in the short run, an increase in demand did not need to require a price increase to be satisfied—a situation where there is virtually no way to have a perfectly elastic supply curve. Note also that any theorizing is meant to simplify reality (to understand it), not to be a literal description of reality: we assume a vacuum to reach general propositions on the fall of bodies, but we don’t really believe that a it exists in daily life. (Except in vacuum cleaners.)
Niko Davor
Jan 5 2021 at 11:02pm
@Pierre, I didn’t know that supply curves were considered perfectly elastic in international trade. Sure, if that is the case, then tax incidence falls entirely on the consumer. OK, thank you.
I’d be curious to hear your retort to Casey Mulligan’s judgement of the Trump Administration on free trade. It seems he judges the Trump Administration much more favorably on the issue of free trade than you do.
Jon Murphy
Jan 5 2021 at 11:27pm
Can you quote exactly what Mulligan says that leads you to the conclusion? I cannot find anything in the article you linked to to suggest he thinks Trump is a free trade guy. Indeed, he explicitly says the opposite.
Pierre Lemieux
Jan 5 2021 at 11:31pm
@Niko: I think Mulligan is mistaken on this and I can only explain it (he is a first-rate economist in “civilian life”) by the fact that, as the chief economist of the CEA, he was required not to contradict the ignorant intuitions of the president, especially that president, or to resign. Perhaps he thought that he was minimizing the damage by staying or he thought the adventure was fun and instructive. I say a few words about how the CEA was wrong in my Regulation article on “The Trump Economy.” Perhaps Mulligan’s latest book, which I haven’t read, would help us understand.
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